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Old 12-23-2004, 01:45 PM   #1
armageddon272
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Join Date: September 20, 2004
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OK, similar to the $30 hotel thread. Some, or most of you might have seen this. Took me some time to figure it out myself.

Proof that 1=2

if
a=b then we multiply both sides by (a) and come to
a^2=ab now we ad (a^2-2ab) and get
a^2+a^2-2ab=ab+a^2-2ab or
2(a^2-ab)=a^2-ab now we divide both sides by (a^2-ab) to get
2=1 as the final answer.

What is wrong with this logic? Like I said, took me about 15 or 20 minutes of thinking and experimenting with numbers to find the problem.
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Old 12-23-2004, 03:34 PM   #2
Bungleau
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Answer PMd.... but not the original answer. I've seen this one before, but never analyzed it in depth. Now I have....
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Old 12-23-2004, 05:11 PM   #3
Davros
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8 out of 11 - took me 90 seconds to see that you take advantage of mathematical property as opposed to any flouting of the laws of mathematics.
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Old 12-23-2004, 05:49 PM   #4
armageddon272
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I've had 4 right answers so far. No wrong ones. I guess this was too easy.
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Old 12-23-2004, 07:10 PM   #5
Bozos of Bones
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Erm... I sent the identical paradox at the Paradox thread a month ago...
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Old 12-23-2004, 07:53 PM   #6
Lavindathar
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I'm drunk and even with my A-level in Maths, Im not even going to attempt it.
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Old 12-23-2004, 08:31 PM   #7
armageddon272
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Sorry Bozos. Guess I missed it. Glory goes to you then.
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Old 12-24-2004, 08:33 PM   #8
Bozos of Bones
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Aw heck, sorry if I sounded like a bastard, didn't mean to..
Anyways, I was just rebrowsing the threads, and noticed that it is not the problem I listed in the Paradox thread. I guess I just thought it was the same thing, just reversed, so I posted it. What I meant to say, is that people just might already know the answer because I posted it recently, that's all...
As for the problem itself, I think I see where it comes from, but I'm too damn lazy to calculate or test it... Nice stuff anyways!
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Old 12-24-2004, 10:33 PM   #9
LennonCook
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Join Date: November 10, 2001
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There is another version of this that works on the same principle. They only differ in one line. I learned this from my year 10 math teacher:
Quote:
Let a = b
a2 = ab
a2 - b2 = ab - b2
(a + b)(a - b) = b(a - b)
a + b = b

Let a = 1, thus b = 1 (since b = a),
1 + 1 = 1
2 = 1
Bozos, this could be the one you posted in the Paradox thread aswell. [img]smile.gif[/img]
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Old 12-25-2004, 06:10 AM   #10
Lavindathar
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Ah, now I'm sober I can see it!

So, mathmatically, 2=1!!!
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