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difficult subject. i want to ask a question rather than giving my opinion, though.
lets put on a practical case. if somebody has sexual relations with a girl and the contraception method fails, and she takes the 72hs pill or the pill of the next day (i dunno how its called in english). how do you consider that? has the sperm fertilized the egg yet? cause i understand that it creates a chemical inbalance in the woman that prevents the egg from developing.
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no
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