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OK, similar to the $30 hotel thread. Some, or most of you might have seen this. Took me some time to figure it out myself.
Proof that 1=2
if
a=b then we multiply both sides by (a) and come to
a^2=ab now we ad (a^2-2ab) and get
a^2+a^2-2ab=ab+a^2-2ab or
2(a^2-ab)=a^2-ab now we divide both sides by (a^2-ab) to get
2=1 as the final answer.
What is wrong with this logic? Like I said, took me about 15 or 20 minutes of thinking and experimenting with numbers to find the problem.
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