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-   General Conversation Archives (11/2000 - 01/2005) (http://www.ironworksforum.com/forum/forumdisplay.php?f=28)
-   -   Puzzle 11, or not. Who's keeping track? (http://www.ironworksforum.com/forum/showthread.php?t=92588)

armageddon272 12-23-2004 01:45 PM

OK, similar to the $30 hotel thread. Some, or most of you might have seen this. Took me some time to figure it out myself.

Proof that 1=2

if
a=b then we multiply both sides by (a) and come to
a^2=ab now we ad (a^2-2ab) and get
a^2+a^2-2ab=ab+a^2-2ab or
2(a^2-ab)=a^2-ab now we divide both sides by (a^2-ab) to get
2=1 as the final answer.

What is wrong with this logic? Like I said, took me about 15 or 20 minutes of thinking and experimenting with numbers to find the problem.

Bungleau 12-23-2004 03:34 PM

Answer PMd.... but not the original answer. I've seen this one before, but never analyzed it in depth. Now I have.... :D

Davros 12-23-2004 05:11 PM

8 out of 11 - took me 90 seconds to see that you take advantage of mathematical property as opposed to any flouting of the laws of mathematics.

armageddon272 12-23-2004 05:49 PM

I've had 4 right answers so far. No wrong ones. I guess this was too easy.

Bozos of Bones 12-23-2004 07:10 PM

Erm... I sent the identical paradox at the Paradox thread a month ago...

Lavindathar 12-23-2004 07:53 PM

<font color="cyan">I'm drunk and even with my A-level in Maths, Im not even going to attempt it.</font>

armageddon272 12-23-2004 08:31 PM

Sorry Bozos. Guess I missed it. Glory goes to you then.

Bozos of Bones 12-24-2004 08:33 PM

Aw heck, sorry if I sounded like a bastard, didn't mean to..
Anyways, I was just rebrowsing the threads, and noticed that it is not the problem I listed in the Paradox thread. I guess I just thought it was the same thing, just reversed, so I posted it. What I meant to say, is that people just might already know the answer because I posted it recently, that's all...
As for the problem itself, I think I see where it comes from, but I'm too damn lazy to calculate or test it... Nice stuff anyways!

LennonCook 12-24-2004 10:33 PM

<span style="color: lightblue">There is another version of this that works on the same principle. They only differ in one line. I learned this from my year 10 math teacher:
Quote:

Let a = b
a<sup>2</sup> = ab
a<sup>2</sup> - b<sup>2</sup> = ab - b<sup>2</sup>
(a + b)(a - b) = b(a - b)
a + b = b

Let a = 1, thus b = 1 (since b = a),
1 + 1 = 1
2 = 1
<span style="color: lightblue">Bozos, this could be the one you posted in the Paradox thread aswell. [img]smile.gif[/img]

Lavindathar 12-25-2004 06:10 AM

<font color="cyan">Ah, now I'm sober I can see it!

So, mathmatically, 2=1!!!</font>

armageddon272 12-26-2004 01:56 PM

No. 2 does not = 1. That is the trick. You must find the mistake in the calculation.

javan 12-26-2004 07:57 PM

PM'ed my answer...

armageddon272 12-26-2004 08:16 PM

Javan's right. Any other guesses?


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